NSG

South Korea has become the country which had signed nuclear agreement with India after it got the waiver from the Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) in 2008.

(1) eighth
(2) ninth
(3) eleventh
(4) none of these

Ans : (2)

Air Pollution

India has recently proposed to ratify the MARPOL convention. MARPOL is associated with

(1) The prevention of Air Pollution from Aeroplane.
(2) The prevention of Air Pollution from heavy industries.
(3) The prevention of Air Pollution from Ships.
(4) The prevention of Air Pollution from Power Plants.

Ans : (3)

"Father of Employment Guarantee Scheme

Who of the following is regarded as "Father of Employment Guarantee Scheme" and a postage stamp was released on his name by the President of India recently?
(1) KM Madhew
(2) Kasu Brahmanand Page
(3) Daulat Singh Kothari
(4) Vitthal Sakharam Page

Ans : (4)

Teesta Water Deal

Recently in news Teesta water deal between

(A) India and Bangaladesh
(B) India and Nepal
(C) India and Pakistan
(D) India and China

Ans : (A)

Lok Pal Bill

Consider the following statemements about Lok Pal Bill:
(A) The submit their reports which are placed in both Houses of parliament.
(B) The government is not bound to accept these reports, but generally it does accept some of the suggestions.
(C) The Lokpal Bill has been refferee to the parliamenary standing committee for personel public grievances, law and justice.
(D) Headed by Rajya Sabha Congress MP Abishek Singhvi, it has three months to give report.

Which of the above statements are true?

(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (c) and (d)
(4) All of the above

Ans :(4)

Parliamentary Standing Committees

Consider the following statements about parliamentry standing committees:

(A) Commonly known as mini-parliament, these committees include numbers from all political parties and even independent MPs.
(B) There are 31 members in each committee - 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
(C) The committees monitor the functioning of central ministries and departmets.

Which of the above statements are true?
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All of the above.

Ans : (4).

TNPSC General Awareness

1. Which National River has decided to declare by Govt of India?

a) Brahmaputra
b) Yamuna
c) Ganga
d) Kaveri
e) None of these

2. Who amongst the folIowing economists gave the concept of “economies of scale”, which says “many goods and services can be produced more cheaply in long series”?

a) Edward C Prescott
b) Amartya Sen
c) Gary S Becker
d) Edmund S Phelps
e) Paul Krugman

3. Very often we read in newspapers/magazines about “Sovereign Wealth Funds”. Which of the following is/ are the correct description of the same?

(A) These are the funds or the reserves of a government or central bank of a country which are invested further to earn profitable returns.
(B) These are the funds which were accumulated by some people over the years but were not put in active circulation as they retain them as Black Money for several years.
(C) The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailout packages are known as sovereign funds.

a) Both B & Conly
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) Only A
e) None of these

4. Very often we read about Special economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. What is the purpose of promoting SEZs in India?

(A) They are established to promote exports.
(B) They are established to attract investments from foreign countries.
(C) They are established to help the poorest of the poor in India as the activities of these zones are reserved only forthe poors and those living below poverty line.

a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) Both A & B only
e) None of these

5. The ratio of the Cash Reserves that the banks are required to keep with the RBI is known as

a) Liquidity Ratio
b) SLR
c) CRR
d) Net Demand & Time Liability
e) None of these

Answers –

1 - (c) , 2 - (e), 3 - (d), 4 - (d), 5 - (c)

Banking Awareness

1. The first Indian bank to open a branch outside India in London in 1946?
a) SBI
b) PNB
c) BOB
d) Canara Bank
e) BOI

2. Coins are minted at?
a) Mumbai
b) Hyderabad
c) Noida
d) Kolkatta
e) All of these

3. Which of the following is not a function of commercial bank?
a) Providing project finance
b) Selling mutual funds
c) Deciding policy rates like CRR, Repo rates/SLR etc.
d) Settlement of payments on behalf of the customers
e) Providing services such as locker facilities, remittances etc...

4. The New Capital Adequacy Frame work prescribed for the banks is commonly known as?
a) KYC norms
b) Credit Policy
c) Basel accord
d) Fiscal Policy
e) None of these

5. Expand the term FRBM?
a) Financial Responsibility and Business management
b) Fiscal Responsibility and Business management
c) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management
d) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
e) Formal Responsibility and Business Management

6. What is an Indian Depository Receipt?
a) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank
b) A depository account with any of depositories
c) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company
d) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
e) None of these

7. Land Development Banks form a part of the?
a) Commercial Banks
b) Industrial Development Bank of India
c) Food Corporation of India
d) Co-operative Credit Structure
e) None of these

8. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added Service offered by bank?
a) Special Accounts for poor sections of society
b) Accident Insurance Cover
c) Instant credit of outstations cheques
d) Free cheque books            
e) All of these

9. The minimum number of women required for formation of women groups under Development of women and children in Rural Areas Programme is?
a) 20
b) 15
c) 10
d) 05
e) None of these

10. What is the full form of 'FINO', a term we see frequently in financial newspapers?
a) Financial Investment Network and Operations
b) Farmer's Investment in National Organization
c) Farmers Inclusion News and Operations
d) Financial Inclusion Network and Operations
e) None of these

11. With an aim to provide better services to the debit card holders, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has directed all commercial and public sector banks to introduce new Automated Teller Machines (ATM) that can deliver lower denomination notes such as?
a) Rs 10
b) 20
c) 50.
d) None of the above
e) All the above

12. Which of the following banks is limited to the needs of agriculture and rural finance?
a) RBI
b) SBI
c) IFC
d) NABARD
e) Axis Bank

13. Open-market operations of Reserve Bank of India refer to?
a) Trading in securities
b) Auctioning
c) Transaction in gold
d) All of these
e) None of these

14. Which of the following has introduced a new tool named Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence System for speedy analysis of data and identification of violations?
a) IRDA
b) SBI
c) RBI
d) TRAI
e) None of these

15. The Reserve Bank hiked the limit for foreign investment in Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) from the earlier cap of 49 percent to?
a) 74 %
b) 47 %
c) 57 %
d) 72 %
e) None of the above

Answers..
1) e
2) e
3) c
4) c
5) d
6) c
7) d
8) d
9) c
10) a
11) e
12) d
13) a
14) b
15) a

Railway Model Questions

Rates - Part I

1. What are Wharfage charges? What is the free time allowed on Goods unloaded and rates for levy of Wharfage charges?

2. Define demurrage charges? What are the guidelines for dealing of waiver/refund of demurrage and Wharfage charges?

3. What are the general rules for booking of luggage?

4. Write short notes on following:

a) Free allowance of luggage on tickets of different classes and passes issued to Railway servants.

b) What is marginal allowance.

5 How do you deal the cases of unbooked and partially booked luggage detected on trains?

6 What is meant by Rationalization of Parcel Traffic? How does it help Railways in minimizing claims?

7 Write in detail about Season tickets? Market Vendor Season ticket, Low Value Season ticket, Free Season Tickets issued to students.

8 What are the rules for booking of a special train?

9 What is meant by Station Outstanding? What are the steps taken to minimize outstanding?

10 Write short Notes on the following

a) Routing of goods traffic b) Rating of goods traffic c) Route Rationalization Scheme.

11 What are the rules governing the opening of a halt station?

12 Write short notes on any three of the following:

a) Wagon Demand Registration Fee. b) Exemption from payment of WDRF.

c) Refund of WDRF. d) Premier Registration Scheme.

13 What are the general rules for issue of Railway concessions to passengers? Write about any two concessions?

14 What are the rules governing grant of station to station rate?

15. What is a siding? Briefly explain the procedure for opening of a siding?

16. What is a siding agreement? What are the various charges collected at Siding?

17. Write short notes on :

a) Out Agency b) City Booking Office c) RCT d) RRT e) Claims Website

f) MRs 11 point programme g) Single File System h) Method to watch Boards and MRs references

18. Write about weighment and reweighment of Goods and collection of punitive charges in case of overloading?

19. What are the incentives and Awards Scheme available on S.C.Railway for implementation of Hindi?

20. What are the constitutional provision regarding use of Official Language Policy?

Rates - PART II

1. RCF stands for _________________________.

2. FOIS stands for ___________________________________.

3. IVRS stands for ____________________________________.

4. POET stands for ____________________________________

5. COIS stands for _____________________________________.

6. CONCERT stands for __________________________________.

7. RDSO stands for ______________________________________.

8. CRIS stands for ______________________________________.

9. IRCTC stands for _______________________________________.

10. RITES stand for ____________________________________.

11. IRCON stands for ____________________________________.

12. IRFC stands for ______________________________________.

13. NTES stands for _____________________________________.

14. Commercial Manual Vol.I deals with___________.

15. Commercial Manual Vol. II deals with _____________________.

16. Goods Tariff Part I Vol I contains rules regarding _____________ goods.

17. Goods Tariff Part I Vol II contains rules regarding _____________ of goods.

18. Goods Tariff Part II contains rules regarding __________ of goods.

19. Coaching Tariff part I contain rules regarding ____________.

20. Coaching Tariff part II contains rules regarding ____________.

21. Coaching Tariff part III contains rules regarding ____________.

22. TRC stands for ____________________________________

23. SORC stands for __________________________________________

24. Bans are imposed by _________________________.

25. Restrictions are imposed by _____________________.

26. Wagon demand cannot be accepted when ____________ are in force.

27. Forwarding note should be preserved for a minimum period of _______.

28. Preferential traffic order is governed by Section ___ of the railway act.

29. Excepting on ___________ days allotment of wagons should be done as per priority.

30. PT Order is valid a period of ______________________.

31. PTO is published by _______________________.

32. Allotment of wagons as per oldest date of registration is done on ______.

33. The number of priorities in PT Order is _______________.

34. For dispose unconnected or undelivered goods y public auction instructions from _______________ is required.

35. In case of said to contain RR, excess packages are delivered on _____________ and _______________________.

36. WT is certified by ____________________.

37. BCX standard rake consists ____________ wagons

38. Change of commodity is permitted by the DCM if the commodity is _____.

39. In case of misdeclaration, the minimum penalty per quintal is _________.

40. If PCEV charges are not paid Railways liability per sheep/goat is ______.

41. L condition means _________________________________________.

42. In general classifications letter d indicates ________________________.

43. In general classification letter small p indicates ___________________.

44. M & DG stands for ___________________________________

45. PDC stands for ______________________________________

46. SWA stands for _____________________________________

47. SLO stands for ___________________________________________

48. VDS stands for _____________________________________________

49. JSR stands for __________________________________________

50. MPA stands for ________________________________________

51. Delivery short of destination is called _______________________.

52. Diversion fee per wagon is Rs. ____________________.

53. When consignments are diverted freight outstanding can be cleared through _______________________.

54. Rebooking of perishables is ___________________.

55. When consignments are rebooked freight outstanding can be cleared through ______________.

56. RR is issued at the door step of consignor in _______________ services.

57. Specially reduced rates is applicable in _______ to ________ rate.

58. Demurrage charge is levied on per___________________basis.

59. Normal Goods shed working hours are from _______ to ________.

60. Demurrage charge for first 24 hours per 8 wheeler wagon per hour is Rs. ______

61. Demurrages charge for second 24 hours per 8 wheeler wagon per hour is Rs. ________.

62. Demurrage charge for subsequent hours after second 24 hours per 8 wheeler BG wagon per hour is Rs. _____.

63. Wharfage charge is collected per day per ________ for goods traffic.

64. Wharfage charge on parcels is collected per day per a unit of ______ kgs.

65. Concession granted to Orthopedically handicapped person with escort in AC2 tier is ________ percent

66. Concession granted to Orthopedically handicapped person with escort in Sleeper class is ________ percent.

67. Concession given to students on Season ticket is ________ percent.

68. Free season tickets are issued to girls students studying upto _____ class.

69. Free season tickets are issued to boys students studying upto ____ class.

70. The cost of low value season ticket issued to labourers of unorganized sector is Rs. ___.

71. Low value season tickets are issued to labourers of unorganized sector whose earning is upto Rs. _____ per month.

72. The highest class rate given in rate list for goods traffic is _______.

73. The lowest class rate given in rate list for goods traffic is _______.

74. EOL is permissible for siding notified for charging on ___________

75. The class rate applicable for wagon load traffic is ____________.

Rates - PART III

Multiple choice Questions:

1 Head of pubic relations department t Zonal level is ( )

a) CPRO (b) CCM (c) COM (d) Sr.DCM

2 Functions of the Commercial Department are

( ) (a) Sale of transport (b) Development of traffic (c) Maintaining public relations (d) all.

3 Head of public complaints at Zonal railway is

( ) (a) Sr.DOM (b) AGM (c) DRM (d) COM

4 Head of Public complaints at Divisional level is

( ) (a) Sr.DCM (b) ADRM (c) Sr.DOM (d) DRM

5 Free allowance of luggage for I & II class season ticket is

( ) (a) 15kgs & 10Kgs (b)10 Kgs & 5 Kgs (c) 50 Kgs & 35 Kgs. (d) None of these.

6 Low value season tickets are issued to labourers of unorganized sector, whose income is less than.

( ) (a) Rs. 400/- p.m. (b) Rs. 500/- p.m. (c) Rs. 1,000/- p.m. (d) None

7 Quarterly season ticket fare is _____ times of monthly season ticket fare

( ) (a) 2 times (b) 2.5 times (c) 2.7 times (d) 3 times

8 Identity card issued along with season ticket is valid for

( ) (a) One year (b) Two years (c) Five years (d) Seven years

9 Low value season tickets are issued for a maximum distance of

( ) (a) 80 kms (b) 100 kms (c) 150 kms (d) 125 kms

10 Market vendor season ticket fare is___ times of normal season ticket fare.

( ) (a) 1.25 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.75 (d) 2

11 Application for special coach should be made through SM to CPTM at least ___ days in advance

( ) (a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 180 days (d) none of these

12 Registration cum security deposit per coach is

( ) a) Rs 1,000/- (b)Rs. 10,000/- (c) Rs.15,000/- (d) None

13 For reserving a special coach ___ percent service charge is levied.

( ) (a) 12% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 25%

14 Names to the extent of ____ may be permitted to be changed upto the departure of the train, in case of special train.

( ) (a) 10% (b) 5% (c) 20% (d) None

15 Minimum distance for charge for a special train/carriage is

( ) (a) 200Kms. (b) 300kms. (c) 500 kms. (d) No limit

16 An application for booking of a special train should be given to CPTM at least ______ days in advance.

( ) (a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 180 (d) No time limit

17 An application for booking of a special train should be given to CPTM not earlier than ______ days in advance.

( ) (a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 180 (d) No time limit

18 In case of a special train haulage charges are collected for a minimum distance of

( ) (a)200Kms. (b) 300kms. (c)500 kms. (d) No limit

19 Concession is not admissible in respect of

( ) (a) Super fast surcharge (b) Reservation charge (c) Safety

surcharge (d) All these

20 Time limit for exchange of student concession certificate for outward journey is

( ) (a)14 days (b)28 days (c) 1 month (d) none

21 The element of concession allowed to Sr. Citizens in all classers is

( ) (a) 25% (b) 30% (c) 50% (d) 70%

22 In case of death/injury to a passenger due to accident, the kith and kin of passenger will be given refund of

( ) (a) Fare deducting clerkage (b) Fare for untravelled portion (c) Full Fare (d) None of these

23 Duplicate ticket can be issued for the purpose of undertaking journey when ticket is

( ) (a) Lost (b) Misplaced (c) Torn (d) All these

24 Parcel way bill is prepared in _____ foils.

( ) (a) 3 foils (b) 4 foils (c) 5 foils (d) 2 foils

25 Penalty for misdeclaration of parcels is dealt under section ___ of Railway Act, 1989.

( ) (a) 66 (b) 63 (c) 167 (d) 163

26 Parcels booked by express trains are charges

( ) (a) P (b) S (c) R (d) None

27 The highest scale in the parcel is

( ) (a) P (b) S (c) R (d) None

28 Transfer of certain tickets is prohibited as per section __ of Railway Act,1989.

( ) (a)49 (b) 55 (c) 53 (d) 142

29 Luggage should be presented for booking at least ____ minutes before scheduled departure of the train.

( ) (a) 60 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) No time limit

30 Minimum luggage charge is

( ) (a) Rs. 10/- (b) Rs. 50/- (c) Rs. 20/- (d) Rs. 30/-

31 WDRF should be claimed within ____ days from the date of registration,

( ) (a) One year (b) Two years (c) Three years (d) Four years

32 The initial document that determines the Railway Liability for loss etc. Of goods is

( ) (a) F. Note (b) R.R (c) Partial Delivery Certificate (d) None

33 Forwarding note should be preserved for a minimum period of ___ years

( ) (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d)

34 Monetary limit of CCM to waive demurrage charge is

( ) (a) Rs. 25,000/- (b) Rs. 50,000/- c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Full powers

35 Monetary limit of GM to waive demurrage charge is

( ) (a) Rs. 25,000/- (b) Rs. 50,000/- c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Full powers

36 Pre-ponement of journey on reserved ticket is permitted

( ) (a) 6 hours before departure of train (b) 24 hours before departure (c) 3 days in advance (d) None of these

37 Postponement of journey on reserved ticket is permitted

( ) (a) 6 hours before departure of train (b) 24 hours before departure (c) 3 days in advance (d) None of these

38 Tatkal charge collected on sleeper class ticket during peak period

( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/-(c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-

39 Tatkal charge collected on AC Chair Car ticket during peak period

( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-

40 Tatkal charge collected on AC3Tier class ticket during peak period

( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-

41 Tatkal charge collected on AC2Tier class ticket during peak period

( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-

42 Tatkal charge collected on sleeper class ticket during non-peak period

( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300

43 Tatkal charge collected on AC Chair Car ticket during non-peak period

( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-

44 Tatkal charge collected on AC3Tier ticket during non-peak period

( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-

45 Tatkal charge collected on AC2Tier ticket during non-peak period

( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-

46. The amount of rebate for each net credit hour earned under EOL scheme is

( ) (a) Rs.100/- (b) Rs. 15/- (c) Rs. 60/- (d) Rs.200/-

47. First application for waiver of demurrage should be submitted to the Station master within ___ days from the date of accrual.

(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) None

48 An appeal for waiver of demurrage charges against the order of lower  authority should be preferred within ____ days from the date of communication of order.

(a) 10 (b) 30 days (c) 15 days (d) 60 days.

49 An indent for a standard rake of BOXN wagons should be for ____ wagons.

(a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 56 (d) 58

50 An indent for a standard rake of BCN wagon should be for ______ wagons.

a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 56 (d) 58

Analogy

Analogy means Similarity or resemblance or some kind of relationship between two given things. Analogy test, therefore intends to evaluate one’s ability to comprehend the relationship that exist s between two objects, things or figures. There are infinite possibilities in establishing relation between two objects. Here, some important relationships are as follows:

1. Cause and Effect Relationship

Example: Education: Development

a) Man: speech
b) Nutrition: health
c) Game: Play
d) Child: Growth

The relationship between development and education is of cause and effect. Education is a cause for development. Among the four choices, only (b) nutrition is a cause for health.

Hence b is the answer

2. Part and Whole Relationship

Example: House: Room

a) Struggle: fight
b) Transport: car
c) School: college
d) Boy: girl

Room is a part of house. Similarly car is a part of transport system.

Hence b is the answer

3. Part: Part relationship

Example: Gill: Fin

a) Salad: rice
b) Sea: fish
c) Kill: bomb
d) Question: team

Just as gill and fin are two different parts of a fish so salad and rice are parts of food.

Hence a is the answer

4. Purpose relationship

Example: Glove: Ball

a) Summer: winter
b) Game: study
c) Stadium: seats
d) Hook: fish

Just as a Glove helps catch a ball, hooks helps to catch a fish

Hence d is the answer

5. Action to object relationship

Example: Break: Piece

a) Writer: pen
b) Bread: bake
c) Kick: football
d) Muddy: Unclear

Just as break is an action that makes pieced, so kick is an action that makes the football move.

Hence c is the answer

6. Study and topic relationship

Example: Linguistics: Language

a) Gardener: harrow
b) Hen: chicken
c) Scale: length
d) Anthropology: man

Just linguistics is the science of language, so anthropology is the study of man’s life

Hence d is the answer

7. Word and antonym relationship

Example: Confidence: diffidence

a) Dastard: coward
b) Field: farm
c) House: garbage
d) Baffle: clarify

Just as diffidence is the opposite of confidence, so clarify is the opposite of baffle.

Hence d is the answer

8. Degree Relationship

Example: Warm: Hot

a) Tailor: textile
b) Sun:  planet
c) Horrible: heinous
d) Fight: war

Just as hot is  the greater degree of warm, so war is the greater degree of fight.

9. Creature and offspring relationship

Example: Horse: Colt

a) Goat: bleat
b) Dawn: twilight
c) Dog: Puppy
d) Actor: stage

Just a colt is a young one of horse so puppy is the young one of dog.

Hence c is the answer

10. Word and Synonym Relationship

Example: Abate: Lessen

a) Sweet: bitter
b) Ice: solid
c) Dog: bitch
d) Secret: clandestine

Just as abate and lessen have similar meanings, so secret or clandestine have similar meanings.

Age

Father is aged three times more than his son Sunil. After 8 years, he would be two and a half times of Sunil's age. After further 8 years, how many times would he be of Sunil's age?

A. 4 times
B. 4 times
C. 2 times
D. 3 times

Answer : Option C

Problem on Age

Ten years ago, P was half of Q's age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3:4, what will be the total of their present ages?

A. 45
B. 40
C. 35
D. 30

Answer : Option C

Explanation :

Let the present age of P and Q be 3x and 4x respectively.
Ten years ago, P was half of Q's age
=> (3x – 10) = 1

2
(4x – 10)
=> 6x – 20 = 4x – 10
=> 2x = 10
=> x = 5
total of their present ages = 3x + 4x = 7x = 7 × 5 = 35

Profit of share

X and Y invest Rs.21000 and Rs.17500 respectively in a business. At the end of the year, they make a profit of Rs.26400. What is the share of X in the profit?

A. Rs.14400
B. Rs.26400
C. Rs.12000
D. Rs.12500

Answer : Option A

Explanation :

Ratio of the investment = 21000 : 17500 = 210 : 175 = 42 : 35 = 6 : 5
Share of X in the profit = 26400 * (6/11) = 2400 * 6 = 14400

General Awareness

IVFRT project is related to Immigration.

National integration council in India head prime minister.

Head quarter of Biodiversity International is in Rome.

The humanoid Robot  'Robonaut 2' was developed by united States.

SLINEX -II exercise which was recently conduted between India and Srilanka was a naval exercise.

Books & Authors

Small is beautiful - E.F.Schumacher.
The highest honour - Condolizza Rice.
A love song for India - Ruth Prawer Jhbbvala.
Goods without men  - Hari Kunjru.
The price of civilization - Jeffrey D Sachs.
Back to work - Bill Clinton.
Ghosts of Afghanistan - Jonathan Steele.

Fill with appropriate word

Directions (Q. A-O): 

In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank

appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

As the country embarks on planning (A) the 12th Plan (2012-17) period, a key question mark (B) hangs over the process is on the energy requirements.Growth is energy-hungry and the aspirations of growing at 9-10% will (C) huge demands on the energy resources of the country. In this energy jigsaw, renewable energy will (D) like never before in the 12th Plan and the (E) . By the rule of the thumb, India will (F) about 100 gigawatts (Gw)-100,000 megawatts of capacity addition in the next five years. Encouraging trends on energy efficiency and sustained (G) by some parts of the government —the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, in particular, needs to be complimented for this-have led to substantially lesser energy intensity of economic growth. However, even the tempered demand numbers are (H) to be below 80Gw. As against this need, the coal supply from domestic sources is unlikely to support more than 25 Gw equivalent capacity. Imported coal can add some more, but at a much (I) cost. Gas-based electricity generation is unlikely to contribute anything substantial in view of the unprecedented gas supply challenges. Nuclear will be (J ) in the foreseeable future. Among imported coal, gas, large hydro and nuclear, no more than 15-20Gw equivalent can be (K) to be added in the five- year time block. (L) (M) this, capacity addition in the renewable energy based power generation has touched about 3Gw a year. In the coming five years, the overall capacity addition in the electricity grid (N ) renewable energy is likely to range between 20Gw and 25Gw. Additionally, over and above the grid-based capacity, off-grid electricity applications are reaching remote places and (O) lives where grid-based electricity supply has miserably failed.

A 1) against

2) for

3) onwards

4) at

5) on

B 1) that

2) inside

3) always

4) who

5) where

C 1) forward

2) subject

3) place

4) demand

5)replace

D 1) pass

2) publish

3)feature

4) find

5) light

E 1) likewise

2) publicity

3) next

4) after

5) earlier

F 1) waste

2) require

3) highlight

4) generate

5) consumed

G 1) structures

2) efforts

3) projections

4) practices

5) developmental

H 1) sure

2) unsure

3) unexpected

4) unlikely

5) likely

I 1) nominal

2) excelled

3) higher

4) lower

5)expected

J 1) failure

2) success

3) dangerous

4) maximum

5) marginal

K 1) certain

2) linked

3) remarked

4) expected

5) sure

L 1) When

2) But

3) However

4) If

5) As

M 1) for

2) with

3) is

4) ever

5) against

N 1) through

2) project

3) versus

4) against

5) capacity

O 1) lightening

2) making

3) touching

4) saving

5) generating

Ans : 

A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 3, E - 4, F - 4, G - 2, H - 4, I - 3, J - 5, K - 4, L - 5, M - 5, N - 1, O - 2

Quantitative Aptitude

1. The sum of three consecutive natural numbers each divisible by 3 is 72. What is the largest among them?
1. 25
2. 26
3. 27
4. 30 5. 26
Answer: (3)

2. The numerator of a non-zero rational number is five less than the denominator. If the denominator is increased by eight and the numerator is doubled, then again we get the same rational number. The required rational number is:
1. 1/8
2. 4/9
3. 2/8
4. 3/8
5. 3/8
Answer: (5)

3. Find the greatest number that will divide 640, 710 and 1526 so as to leave 11, 7, 9 as remainders respectively.
1. 36
2. 37
3. 42
4. 29
5. 47
Answer: (2)

4. Jayesh is as much younger than Anil as he is older than Prashant. If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is Jayesh’s age in years?
1. 29
2. 30
3. 24
4. 25
5. 28
Answer: (3)

5. A bag contains one rupee, 50-paise and 25-paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3 5. Their total value is Rs. 114. The value of 50 paise coins is:
1. Rs. 28
2. Rs. 36
3. Rs. 49
4. Rs. 72
5. Rs. 50
Answer: (1)

6. A tempo is insured to the extent of 4 5 of its original value. If the premium on it at the rate of 1.3 percent amounts to Rs. 910, the original value of the tempo is:
1. Rs. 78,000
2. Rs. 78,500
3. Rs. 80,000
4. Rs. 85,000
5. Rs. 87,500
Answer: (5)

7. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain 20% in the transaction?
1. 19
2. 18
3. 24
4. 22
5. 23
Answer: (2)

8. In a ratio, which is equal to 3 : 4, if the antecedent is 12, then the consequent is:
1. 10
2. 16
3. 20
4. 22
5. 18
Answer: (2)

9. A, B and C are employed to do a piece of work for Rs. 529. A and B together are supposed to do 19/23 of the work and B and C together 8/23 of the work. What amount should A be paid?
1. Rs. 320
2. Rs. 345
3. Rs. 355
4. Rs. 380
5. None of these
Answer: (2)

10. A boy rides his bicycle 10 km at an average speed of 12 km/hr and again travels 12 km at an average speed of 10 km/hr. His average speed for the entire trip is approximately :
1. 10.4 km/hr
2. 10.8 km/hr
3. 12 km/hr
4. 14 km/hr
5. 13 km/hr
Answer: (2)

11. From a pack of 52 cards, two cards are drawn together at random. What is the probability of both the cards being kings?
1. 1/19
2. 27/29
3. 35/256
4. 1/121
5. 35/121
Answer: (4)

12. An automobile financier claims to be lending money at simple interest, but he includes the interest every six months for calculating the principal. If he is charging an interest of 10%, the effective rate of interest becomes:
1. 13%
2. 10.25%
3. 15%
4. 11%
5. None of these
Answer: (2)

13. A towel, when bleached, was found to have lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The percentage of decrease in area is:
1. 11%
2. 12%
3. 20%
4. 28%
5. 33%
Answer: (4)

14. What is the difference in exports between the periods March to May and June to August (in $ million)?
1. 418
2. 592
3. 5790
4. 585
5. None of these
Answer: (4)

15. If the exports of company B in the year 2003 were Rs. 77 crore, then, what were the imports of the company in that year?
1. 86 crore
2. 107.5 crore
3. 103.95 crore
4. 101 crore
5. None of these
Answer: (3)

General awareness

1. Which of the following countries recently conferred its Highest State Honour on Late Mrs. Indira Gandhi for her contribution in its ‘Liberation war’? 

(A) South Sudan 

(B) Bangladesh 

(C) Bhutan 

(D) Slovakia 

(E) Croatia 

Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following statements is true? 

(A) Banks cannot accept demand and time deposits from public. 

(B) Banks can accept only demand deposits from public. 

(C) Banks can accept only time deposits from public. 

(D) Banks can accept both demand and time deposits from public. 

(E) Banks can accept demand and time deposits only from Government. 

Ans : (D)

3. Interest payable on savings bank accounts is– 

(A) not regulated by RBI. 

(B) regulated by Sate Governments. 

(C) regulated by Central Government. 

(D) regulated by RBI. 

(E) regulated by Finance minister. 

Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following is the correct statement ? 

(A) State Bank of India is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India. 

(B) A nationalised bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India. 

(C) A cooperative bank is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India. 

(D) RBI is the sole authority to issue and manage currency in India. 

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

5. The Home Minister of India was recently on a visit to Bangladesh where both the countries signed a Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP). What are the major points of this agreement? 

(A) The plan will help in resolving long pending border dispute between both the nations. 

(B) The head count of the people living in enclaves on the border will be completed within next six month’s time. 

(C) India assured that no BSF jawan will open fire on the people crossing the borders unless there is an attack on them. 

(A) Only (A) 

(B) Only (B) 

(C) Only (C) 

(D) All (A), (B) and (C) 

(E) Both (A) and (C) 

Ans : (E)

6. The Government of India recently decided to raise the price of oil products like diesel, petrol and cooking gas. However, some taxes on these products were reduced or scrapped all together. What were these taxes which were reduced or scrapped ? 

(A) Customs Duty  (B) VAT (C) Excise Duty 

(A) Only (A) 

(B) Both (A) and (B) 

(C) Both (A) and (C) 

(D) Both (B) and (C) 

(E) All (A), (B) and (C) 

Ans : (C)

7. The President of India was recently on a visit to South Korea and Mongolia. During her visit some agreements were signed by both the countries. Which of the following was a common area on which India signed agreements with South Korea and Mongolia both? 

(A) Peaceful use of nuclear energy. 

(B) Export of edible oil to South Korea and Mongolia. 

(C) Providing technical help to become self sufficient in production of food grains. 

(D) Willingness of both the countries to support India’s bid to have permanent seat in UN Security Council. 

(E) To hold Olympic Games in 2022 in New Delhi jointly with South Korea and Mongolia. 

Ans : (A)

8. Iran recently threatened that it will stop supply of oil to India if the payment issue is NOT sorted out quickly. What is the problem in payment to Iran ? 

(A) The oil supplied by Iran is of substandard quality. Hence India suspended the supply and stopped the payment. 

(B) Indian banks have stopped transfer of money to Iran as UN has imposed sanctions on Iran. 

(C) India is bound to purchase oil only from OPEC members. Iran has abandoned the membership of OPEC, which has created a problem in payments. 

(A) Only (A) 

(B) Only (B) 

(C) Only (C) 

(D) All (A), (B) and (C) 

(E) None of these 

Ans : (E)

9. Accounts are allowed to be operated by cheques in respect of– 

(A) Both Savings bank accounts and fixed deposit accounts 

(B) Savings bank accounts and current accounts 

(C) Both Savings bank accounts and loan accounts. 

(D) Both Savings bank accounts and cash accounts only. 

(E) Both Current accounts and fixed deposit accounts 

Ans : (B)

10. Yingluck Shinawatra has won recently held elections to become the first woman Prime Minister of– 

(A) Myanmar 

(B) South Korea 

(C) North Korea 

(D) Thailand 

(E) China 

Ans : (D)

11. Which of the following is correct statement ? 

(A) Normally no interest is paid on current deposit accounts. 

(B) Interest is paid on current accounts at the same rate as term deposit accounts. 

(C) The rate of interest on current account and savings account are the same. 

(D) No interest is paid on any deposit by the bank. 

(E) Savings deposits are the same as current deposits. 

Ans : (A)

12. The Lokayukta of which of the following States had submitted a report on illegal mining of iron ore in the State? 

(A) Andhra Pradesh 

(B) Tamil Nadu 

(C) Karnataka 

(D) Odisha 

(E) None of these 

Ans : (C)

13. The usual deposit accounts of banks are– 

(A) Current accounts, electricity accounts and insurance premium accounts 

(B) Current accounts, Post office savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts 

(C) Loan accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts 

(D) Current accounts, savings bank accounts and term deposit accounts 

(E) Current bill accounts and term deposit accounts 

Ans : (D)

14. Fixed deposits and recurring deposits are– 

(A) repayable after an agreed period. (B) repayable on demand. 

(C) not repayable. (D) repayable after death of depositors. 

(E) repayable on demand or after an agreed period as per bank’s choice. 

Ans : (A)

15. Almost all the major economies of the world had reacted sharply on the issue of USA’s ceiling limit on its debt. Why was the issue so important for other nations, which otherwise was an internal matter for USA ? (This was during last month of July 2011; till Senate’s decision)– 

(A) The Senate’s decision on the issue might have caused US dollar to weaken further or get strengthened in international markets. 

(B) Weakening of the dollar might have pushed up Euro and other major currencies up and some European countries which were already in trouble would have faced a new crisis. 

(C) Debt limit was directly related to liquidity position of banks in USA. 

(A) Only (A) 

(B) Only (B) 

(C) Only (A) and (B) both 

(D) Only (B) and (C) both 

(E) All (A), (B) and (C) 

Ans : (*)

16. Which of the following is not a Millennium Goal set by the UNO? 

(A) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger 

(B) Reduce child mortality 

(C) Ensure environmental sustainability 

(D) Combat terrorism and bring people in main stream of society 

(E) Achieve universal primary education

Ans : (D)

17. Financial inclusion means provision of– 

(A) financial services namely, payments, remittances, savings, loans and insurance at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same. 

(B) ration at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same. 

(C) house at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same. 

(D) food at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same. 

(E) education at affordable cost to persons not yet given the same. 

Ans : (A)

18. Which of the following Statements containing results of India’s recent Census is not correct? 

(A) Kerala has about 94% literacy, the highest in India 

(B) The Sex Ratio in India is 940 

(C) Male literacy is lower than female literacy in the seven most developed states 

(D) Uttar Pradesh is the most populous State in India 

(E) The population of India has increased by 181 million during the decade 2001-2011 

Ans : (C)

19. Which of the following is known as cross selling by Banks ? 

(A) Sale of a debit card to a credit card holder 

(B) Sale of Insurance policy to a depositor 

(C) Issuance of Cash against Cheque presented by a third party 

(A) Only (A) (B) Only (B) (C) Only (C) 

(D) Both (A) and (C) (E) All (A), (B) and (C) 

Ans : (B)

20. Angela Merkel was recently in India to receive Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding for the year 2009. What has been her contribution ill the international politics which made her the. ‘Best Choice’ for the award? 

(A) She played a major role in restarting negotiations between Russia and USA on ‘STAR’. 

(B) She initiated ‘Health Care Reforms’ in Germany and solved problems related to ‘future energy development.’

(C) She played a crucial role in negotiation of the ‘Treaty of Lisbon’ and Berlin declaration. 

(A) Only (B) and (C) 

(B) Only (A) and (B) 

(C) Only (C) 

(D) Only (A) and (C) 

(E) None of these 

Ans : (A)

21. Japan won the women’s Football World Cup 2011 by defeating– 

(A) England 

(B) Germany 

(C) Argentina 

(D) USA 

(E) China 

Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following states became the first state in the country to launch RBI’s e-payment system for commercial tax payers? 

(A) Andhra Pradesh 

(B) Kerala 

(C) Gujarat 

(D) Maharashtra 

(E) Karnataka 

Ans : (E)

23. When a bank returns a cheque unpaid, it is called– 

(A) payment of the cheque 

(B) drawing of the cheque 

(C) cancelling of the cheque 

(D) dishonour of the cheque 

(E) taking of the cheque 

Ans : (D)

24. Mortgage is a– 

(A) security on movable property for a loan given by a bank. 

(B) security on immovable property for a loan given by a bank. 

(C) concession on immovable property for a loan given by a bank. 

(D) facility on immovable property for a loan given by a bank. 

(E) security on immovable property for a deposit received by a bank. 

Ans : (B)

25. The world’s highest ‘Rail Bridge’ is being constructed in the State of Jammu and Kashmir will be on which of the following rivers ? 

(A) Jhelum 

(B) Chenab 

(C) Indus 

(D) Ravi 

(E) None of these 

Ans : (B)

26. Which of the following films was not directed by Mani Kaul, who died recently ? 

(A) 3 Idiots 

(B) Ghashiram Kotwal 

(C) Uski Roti 

(D) Duvidha 

(E) Ashad Ka Ek Din 

Ans : (A)

27. The President of which of the following countries is accused of violation of ‘‘War Powers Act” of his country when he decided to attack Libya with other NATO countries in June 2011 ? 

(A) USA 

(B) France 

(C) Germany 

(D) Spain 

(E) Italy 

Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Government of India to provide an identity to its all resident citizens and also in identifying people who are poorest, often the last to stand up to ask for their share in government schemes or lack identity ? 

(A) Public Provident Fund scheme 

(B) Indira Gandhi Old Age Pension scheme 

(C) Social Security Scheme for Gramin Oak Sevaks 

(D) M. G. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 

(E) Aadhar Card scheme 

Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following types of accounts are known as “Demal Accounts” ? 

(A) Accounts which are Zero Balance Accounts 

(B) Accounts which are opened to facilitate repayment of a loan taken from the bank. No other business can be conducted from there 

(C) Accounts in which shares of various companies are traded in electronic form 

(D) Accounts which are operated through internet banking facility 

(E) None of these 

Ans : (C)

30. Who amongst the following won the Wimbledon Men’s Finals 2011 which was also his first Wimbledon title? 

(A) Rafael Nadal 

(B) Novak Djokovic 

(C) Robert Bruce 

(D) Lleyton Hewitt 

(E) None of these 

Ans : (B)

31. Who is the chairman of the committee constituted by RBI to study issues and concerns in the Micro Finance Institutions (MFI) Sector ? 

(A) Y. H. Malegam 

(B) Dr. K. C. Chakraborty 

(C) C. Rangarajan 

(D) M. Damodaran 

(E) Ms. Usha Thorat 

Ans : (A)

32. Upper limit prescribed for RTGS transaction is– 

(A) Rs. 1 lac 

(B) Rs. 2 lacs 

(C) Rs. 5 lacs 

(D) Rs. 50 lacs 

(E) No upper limit is prescribed 

Ans : (E)

33. Distribution of insurance products and insurance policies by banks as corporate agents is known as– 

(A) General insurance 

(B) Non-life insurance 

(C) Bancassurance 

(D) Insurance banking 

(E) Deposit insurance 

Ans : (C)

34. In order to attract more foreign exchange, the Government of India decided to allow foreign investment in LLP firms. What is full form of “LLP” as used in this reference? 

(A) Local Labour Promotion 

(B) Low Labour Projects 

(C) Limited Loan Partnership 

(D) Longer Liability Partnership 

(E) Limited Liability Partnership 

Ans : (E)

35. NEFT means– 

(A) National Electronic Funds Transfer system 

(B) Negotiated Efficient Fund Transfer System 

(C) National Efficient Fund Transfer Solution 

(D) Non Efficient Fund Transfer System 

(E) Negotiated Electronic Foreign Transfer system 

Ans : (A)

36. Who among the following has been appointed as a director on board of Bank of America–the first non-American on the board of one of the largest financial institutions in the world? 

(A) Azim H. Premji 

(B) Ratan Tara 

(C) Mukesh Ambani 

(D) C. V. Kamath 

(E) Chanda Kochhar 

Ans : (C)

37. When the rate of inflation increases– 

(A) purchasing power of money increases 

(B) purchasing power of money decreases 

(C) value of money increases 

(D) purchasing power of money remains unaffected 

(E) amount of money in circulation decreases 

Ans : (B)

38. POSCO is in the process of establishing its plants in India. What does the letter ‘P’ denote in the name POSCO? 

(A) Popular 

(B) Pallin 

(C) Pohang 

(D) Paradeep 

(E) Petersburg 

Ans : (C)

39. Who amongst the following has become the Chief Minister of a State in India third time consecutively ? 

(A) Tarun Gogoi 

(B) Nitish Kumar 

(C) J. Jayalalithaa 

(D) Mamta Banerjee 

(E) None of these 

Ans : (A)

40. Who amongst the following is the winner of Man Booker International Prize - 2011 ? 

(A) Andrea Levy 

(B) Nicola Barker 

(C) Tom McCarthy 

(D) Linda Grant 

(E) Philip Roth 

Ans : (E)

41. Interest on savings bank account is now calculated by banks on–

(A) minimum balance during the month 

(B) minimum balance from 7th to last day of the month 

(C) minimum balance from 10th to last day of the month 

(D) maximum balance during the month 

(E) daily product basis 

Ans : (E)

42. The third International Conference of the Trade Unions was organised in June 2011 in– 

(A) Vienna 

(B) Moscow 

(C) London 

(D) Paris 

(E) Berlin 

Ans : (D)

43. A centralised database with online connectivity to branches, Internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as– 

(A) investment banking 

(B) core banking 

(C) mobile banking 

(D) national banking 

(E) specialised banking 

Ans : (C)

44. The Government of India recently decided to lift four years old ban on export of wheat. What was the reason for the same ? 

(A) India had a bumper crop of wheat in the last two years. Hence it has excess stock of wheat. 

(B) As per the Food Security Act India is bound to provide 10 million tonnes of wheat to World Food Grain stock every year. India defaulted last year. This year it does not want to be one. 

(C) As advised by the Supreme Court of India, the money received from export should be used to pay subsidy to the farmers. 

(A) Only (B) 

(B) Only (A) 

(C) Only (C) 

(D) Both (A) and (B) 

(E) All (A), (B) and (C) 

Ans : (B)

45. Which of the following is not considered a money market instrument ? 

(A) Treasury Bills 

(B) Repurchase Agreement 

(C) Commercial Paper 

(D) Certificate of Deposit 

(E) Shares and Bonds 

Ans : (E)

46. With a view to facilitate payment of balance in the deposit account to the person named by the depositor without any hassles in the event of death of the account holder, the following facility was introduced for bank accounts in our country– 

(A) Will 

(B) Registration 

(C) Nomination 

(D) Indemnity 

(E) Guarantee 

Ans : (C)

47. The Government of which of the following states has agreed to give captive mines of iron ores to all the companies who are willing to establish plants there? 

(A) West Bengal 

(B) Odisha

(C) Jharkhand 

(D) Bihar 

(E) Karnataka 

Ans : (B)

48. ‘Gorkhaland Council’ which was recently in news is a body set up for administration of which of the following Districts? 

(A) Siliguri 

(B) Bagdogra 

(C) Malda 

(D) Darjeeling 

(E) Gangtok 

Ans : (D)

49. Banks in our country normally publicise that additional interest rate is allowed on retail domestic term deposits of– 

(A) Minors 

(B) Married women 

(C) Senior citizens 

(D) Government employees 

(E) Rural residents 

Ans : (C)

50. Largest shareholder (in percentage shareholding) of a nationalised bank is– 

(A) RBI 

(B) NABARD 

(C) LICI 

(D) Government of India 

(E) IBA

Ans : (D)

Test to your english knowledge

Directions—: 

In each of the following questions a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent ( coherent means logically complete and sound).

1. Women's rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well- being. A major global women's rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world's nations a few decades ago, .............................................................These range from the cultural, political to the economic.  For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women's rights are only an issue in countries where religion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation's Women's Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women's rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.

(A) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.

(B) Why is it then, that moment still face a number of problems on the domestic front?

(C) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade age.

(D) Women's activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously.

(E) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.

Overview of the question.

In this question you have been given a short paragraph, with one line deleted in between, like a Cloze test in which one word has been deleted in between. You have to choose from the appropriate answer choices which line fits best in to the paragraph in the blank space. How to Solve ?

1. DON’T WASTE PRECIOUS TIME READING THE WHOLE PARAGRAPH .

2. READ THE LINES IMMEDIATELY BEFORE AND AFTER THE BLANK ONLY .

(A major global women's rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world's nations a few decades ago, ............................................................ . These range from the cultural, political to the economic.)

3. FOCUS ON THE FIRST FEW WORDS AFTER THE BLANK: 

The first words after the blank are (1) “these ” (2) range (3) from (4) the (5) cultural. Try to identify crucial words which give hints on how to solve these questions. Such words are called “KEYWORDS”. You have to identify such Keywords in order to solve the questions. The first question which should come to your mind is that what is the word “these” referring to.

“These” is a pronoun.

“These” is plural.

“These” has to refer to something in the previous line which is plural in nature .

This previous line is the blank line which you have to insert

4. NOW GO STRAIGHT TO THE ANSWER CHOICES AND ELIMINATE WRONG CHOICES

(A) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women . ( Shortlisted for the correct answer As “these” can refer to “issues”).

(B) Why is it then, that women still face a number of problems on the domestic front? (Shortlisted for the correct answer as “these” can refer to “problems”)

(C) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade age. ( Eliminated as there is no plural word in this line to which “these” can refer to )

(D) Women's activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take this seriously. ( Eliminated as there is no plural word in this line to which “these” can refer to)

(E) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life ( Shortlisted for the correct answer As “these” can refer to “issues”).

5. WORK WITH SHORTLISTED OPTIONS

Now we have 3 shortlisted options , lets try to fit in these three options into the paragraph

1. (A) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women. These range from the cultural, political to the economic .(This answer choice is Eliminated , as a treaty - which means an understanding- cannot by itself tackle and solve any problem, a treaty is like an international conference , where some common understanding and roadmaps are discussed ,

hence a treaty cannot solve problems, it can only provide guidelines on how to solve a particular

issue. )

2. ( B) Why is it then, that women still face a number of problems on the domestic front? These range from the cultural, political to the economic. (Eliminated as this talks about problems on the “domestic”- i.e. household front, whereas the subsequent line talks about some problems ranging from cultural, political and economic. )

3. (E) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of

life . These range from the cultural, political to the economic ( This is the correct answer, as “all areas of life” refer to cultural, political and economic issues in the subsequent sentence Hence, clearly we can see that option (E) is the right Answer, although it is tempting to mark option (A), but you should be extra careful while solving these problems .

Think & Answer

Directions (Q. 1-5): 

In each of the following questions, a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five answer choices given, to make the passage complete and coherent.

1 Poverty is the state of majority of world’s people and nations. Why is this? Have they been lazy, made poor decisions, and been solely responsible for their own plight? What about their governments? Have they pursued policies that actually harm successful development? Such causes of poverty and inequality are no doubt real. But deeper and more global causes of poverty are often less discussed. Behind the increasing inter-connectedness promised by globalisation are global decisions, policies and practices. These are typically influenced, driven or formulated by the rich and powerful. These can be leaders of rich countries or other global actors such as multinational corporations, institutions and influential people. In the face of such enormous external influence, the governments of poor nations and their people are often powerless. As a result, in the global context, a few get wealthy while the majority struggles.

1) Is it enough to blame poor people for their own predicament?

2) What is the government doing about it?

3) Are the wealthy ones in the nation even aware of this?

4) The government has already taken measures to eradicate the same.

5) The huge gap between the rich and the poor in the nation is now narrowing.

2 Women’s rights around the world are an important indicator to understand global well- being. A major global women’s rights treaty was ratified by the majority of the world’s nations a few decades ago. These range from the cultural, political to the economic. For example, women often work more than men, yet are paid less; gender discrimination affects girls and women throughout their lifetime; and women and girls are often the ones that suffer the most poverty. Many may think that women’s rights are only an issue in countries where religion is law. Or even worse, some may think this is no longer an issue at all. But reading the report about the United Nation’s Women’s Treaty and how an increasing number of countries are lodging reservations will show otherwise. Gender equality furthers the cause of child survival and development for all of society, so the importance of women’s rights and gender equality should not be underestimated.

1) This treaty tackled and solved a number of issues related to women.

2) Why is it then, that women still face a number of problems on the domestic front?

3) Thus, the woman today is ten times more empowered as compared to a woman say about a decade ago.

4)Women’s activists across nations have implored the respective governments to take! this seriously.

5) Yet, despite many successes in empowering women, numerous issues still exist in all areas of life.

3 Research has shown that air pollutants from fossil fuel use make clouds reflect more of the sun’s rays back into space. This leads to an effect known as global dimming whereby less heat and energy reaches the earth. However, it is believed that global dimming caused the droughts in certain parts of the world where millions died, because the northern hemisphere oceans were not warm enough to allow rain formation. Global dimming is also hiding the true power of global warming. By cleaning up global dimming- causing pollutants without tackling greenhouse gas emissions, rapid warming has been observed and various human health and ecological disasters have resulted, as witnessed during the European heat wave in 2003, which saw thousands of people die.

1) This, though, does not bring any relief in the problems associated with climate change.

2) This phenomenon thus is part of the climate change problem.

3) Scientists thus believe that this phenomenon goes hand in hand with global warming.

4) At first, it sounds like an ironic saviour to climate change problems.

5) The answer to all our problems with respect to climate- change is definitely here.

4 Next to China, India is the most populated country in the world. Particularly, rush to technical andhigher education has increased as the scope for arts and science has become lesser and lesser due to lack of reforms and upgradation in the course structure and materials according to the developments of the world. Also, qualification in higher education gives added advantage to face competition successfully in the job market.

1) Keeping this in mind, the government has provided concessions in the admission fees for the arts and science streams in the country.

2) Naturally, there is too much rush and competition in every field.

3) Despite this the rush to higher education is lesser.

4) This population increase, though, has not kept pace with the knowledge expansion around the world.

5) In the next decade, it will become the most populous.

5 Analysts and industry pundits forecast that the notebook market which has been growing faster than the desktop market for the past three years is expected to overtake the desktop market by the year 2011-12. A fall in prices, large deals from governments and institutions and demand from consumers and sectors such as education are expected to help the notebook numbers. According to research agencies, the year 2010 – 11 saw notebook volumes rise and for the first time, a million-plus notebooks were sold in India in a single quarter. The market has grown nearly four times for notebooks. The demand is driven by all sectors and a very buoyant consumer market, which prefers mobile computers. Entry- level notebook prices have dropped below the Rs. 25,000 mark; this has helped break the ice with new customers. This drop in notebook prices has been helped by the drop in the prices of the building blocks that make a notebook. It’s simple. With notebook volumes growing, the prices of the components are also bound to come down____________.

1) All this has resulted in a noticeable change in a number of large government tenders for notebooks; which were traditionally for desktops.

2) Because of this the government still prefers desktops to notebooks and has passed tenders for the same.

3) Thereby making them more expensive.

4) Thus, the forecast for the coming year states that desktops will be the preferred technology choice only for consumers who cannot afford the exorbitantly priced notebooks.

5) Thus, notebooks will become obsolete after a decade or so.

Ans : 1 - 1, 2 - 5 , 3 - 4, 4 - 2, 5 - 1

IBPS English model question

Written English Questions (50 marks):

There were total 3 descriptive question in this section and each question had 2 alternate question.

A. Letter Writing:(15 Marks)
Write a letter to your friends/sister and tell him/her about the importance of Women’s Reservation Bill.
Write a letter to a local news paper and ask them to promote tourist spots in your area
Write a letter to to concerned authorities about power cuts in your area.

B. Essay Writing: (20 Marks)
E-Commerce
The recent boom in Telecommunication System in India [Not in Exact language as written in question paper, but topic is same]

C. Precise Writing: (15 Marks)
Topic was on ‘Benami properties’ and price bubble in real estate properties.

Answer all

1. In a certain code language 'TERMINAL' is written as 'NSFUMBOJ' and TOWERS' is written as 'XPUTSF'. How is 'MATE' written in that code?

1) FUBN   

2) UFNB   

3) BNFU

4) BNDS   

5) None of these

2. The positions of how many digits in the number 5314687 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the number?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

3. What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following series? AC    EG    IK MO        ?

1) PR   

2) QS   

3) OR

4) PS   

5) None of these

4. 'ERID' is related to 'DIRE' in the same way as 'RIPE' is related to

1) EPIR

2) PERI

3) EPRI

4) PEIR

5) IPRE

5. How many meaningful English words can be made with the third, fifth, seventh and ninth letters of the word DOWNGRADED, using each letter only once in each word?

1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three

5) More than three

Test your computer knowledge

1. To change selected text to ALL CAPITAL LETTERS, click the change case button , and then click______
a. UPPERCASE
b .UPPER ALL
c. CAPS LOCK
d. Lock upper
e. Large size

2. A person who used his or expertise to gain access to other peoples computers to get information illegally or do damage is
a. Hacker
b. Analyst
c. Instant messenger
d. Programmer
e. Spammer

3. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be__________
a. distributed
b. free
c. centralized
d. open source
e. None of these

4. Reusable optical storage will typically have the acronym
a. CD
b. DVD
c. ROM
d. RW

5. The most common type of storage devices are___________
a. persistence
b. optical
c. magnetic
d. flash

6. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer readable are known as _______
a. an ASCII Code
b. a magnetic type
c. an OCR scanner
d. a bar code
e. none of these

7. A website's main page is called it's__________
a. home page
b. browser page
c. search page
d. Index Page
e. none of these

8. Part number, part description ,and number of parts ordered are examples of_______
a. control
b. output
c. processing
d. feedback
e. output

9. To access properties of an object, the mouse technique to use is __________
a. dragging
b. dropping
c. right-clicking
d. shift-clicking
e. none of these

10. Computers used the__________ number systems to store data and perform calculations
a. binary
b. octal
c. decimal
d. hexadecimal
e. none of these

11.______ are attempts by individuals to obtain confidential information from you by falsifying
their identity.
a. phishing trips
b. computer viruses
c. Spyware spams
d. viruses
e. phishing scams

12. Why is it unethical to share copyrighted files with your friends
a.it is not unethical, because it is legal
b. it is unethical because the files are being given for free
c. sharing copyrighted files without permission breaks copyrights laws.
d. it is not unethical because the files are being given for free
e. it is not unethical-anyone can access acomputer

13. Which of the following can be used to select entire document?
a. CTRL+A
b.ALT+F5
c. SHIFT+A
d. CTRL-K
e. CTRL+H

14. To instruct word to fit the width of a column to the contents of a table automatically, dick the_____ button and then option to auto fit
content
a. Fit to form
b. format
c. auto size
d. contents
e. auto fit

15. The simultaneous processing of 2 or more programs by processor is ___________
a. Multi programming
b. multi-tasking
c. time-sharing
d. multi-processing

16. A disk's content that recorded at his time of manufacture and that cannot be erased by the user is______
a. memory -only
b. write- only
c. once- only
d. run-only
e. read-only

17. What is the permanent memory built in to your computer called?
a. RAM
b. Floppy
c. CPU
d. CD-ROM
e. ROM

18. The default view in Excel is _____________ View.
a. Work
b. Auto
c. normal
d. Roman
e. none of these

19. What displays the contents of the active cell in Excel
a. Name box
b. Row heading
c. Formula Bar
d. Task panel

20. In word you can force a page break___________
a. by positioning your cursor at the appropriate place and pressing the F1key
b. By positioning your cursor at the
appropriate place and pressing Ctrl+Enter
c. By using the insert/section break
d. by changing the font size of your
documents
e. None of these

21. Grouping and processing all of firm's transections at one time is called__________
a. A data base management system
b. Batch processing
c. A Real time system
d. An one line system
e. None of these

22. Help menu is available at which button?
a. end
b. start
c. turnoff
d. restart
e. reboot

23. You can keep your personal files/folder in_______
a. my folder
b. my documents
c. my files
d. my text
e. none of these

24. A central computer that holds collections of data and program for many PCs, Work station, and other computers is a(n)_____________
a. Super computer
b. mini computer
c. laptop
d. server
e. none of these

25. When you save to this, your data will remain intact even when the computer is turned off.
a. RAM
b. mother board
c. secondary storage device
d. primary storage device

26. The _____________ folder remains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
a. drafts
b. outbox
c. address book
d. sent items

27. You can _________________search by providing more information the search engine can use to select a smaller, more useful set of results
a. refine
b. expand
c. load
d. query

28. The content of_______________ are lost when computer turn off.
a. storage
b. input
c. output
d. memory
e. none of these

29. The _____________ enables you to
simultaneously keep multiple web pages open in one browser window.
a. tab bar
b. pop-up helper
c. tab row
d. address bar

30. a DVD is an example of a(n) __________
a. hard disk
b. optical disk
c. output device
d. Solid-state storage device

31. The basic unit of a work sheet into which you enter data in excel is called a ______________
a.Tab
b. cell
c. box
d. range

32. __________ is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors
a. tracking
b. formatting
c. crashing
d. allotting
e. none of these

33. Which ports connects special types of music instruments to sound cards?
a. BUS
b. CPU
c. USB
d. MIDI
e. MINI

34. The process of transferring files from a computer on the internet to your computer is called _____
a. Downloading
b. uploading
c. FTP
d. JPEG
e. downsizing

35. In Excel, allows users to bring together copies of workbooks those others users have worked on independently
a. Copying
b. merging
c. pasting
d. compiling
e. none of these

36. If you want to connect to your own computer through the internet from another location, you can use _________
a. e-mail
b. FTP
c. instant message
d. Telnet
e. None of these

37. To reload a web page, press the _______ button
a. redo
b. Refresh
c. restore
c. ctrl

38. Mobile commerce is best described as ______
a. the use of kioske in marketing
b. transporting products
c. buying and selling goods/services through wireless handled devices
d. using notebook PCs in marketing

39. video processor consist of ____________ and ______________ which store and process images
a. CPU and VGA
b. CPU and MEMORY
C. VGA and Memory
d.VGI and DVI

40.________________ are words that a programing language has set aside for its own use
a. control words
b. control structure
c. keywords
d. reserved keys
e.none of these

41. What is the process of copying software programs from secondary storage media to the hard disk is called?
a. Configuration
b. download
c. storage
d. upload
e. installation

42. This first step in the transaction processing cycle captures business data through various modes such as optical scanning or at an electronic commerce website _________
a. document and report generation
b. data base management
c. transaction processing start-up
d. data entry
e. none of these

43. When the pointer is positioned on a _________ , it is shaped like a hand
a. grammar error
b. formatting error
c. screen tip
d. hyperlink
e. spelling error

44. The computer abbreviation KB usually means ___________
a. key block
b. kernel boot
c. key byte
d. kit bit
e. kilo byte

45. Which of the following are advantages of CD-ROM as a storage media?
a. CD-ROM is an expensive way to store large amount of data and information
b.CD-ROM disks retrieve data and information more quickly than magnetic disk can do
c.CD-ROM make less errors than magnetic media
d. all of the above
e. None of these

46. A(n) ________________ is a special visual and audio effect applied in power point to text or content
a. animation
b. flash
c. wipe
d. dissolve
e. none of these

47. which of the following is storage device that uses rigid, permanently installed magnetic disks to store data/information
a.Floppy diskette
b. hard disk
c. permanent disk
d. optical disk
e.none of these

48. The piece of hardware that converts your computer's digital signal to an analog signal that can travel over telephone lines is called a ____________
a. Translator
b. blue cord
c. Converter
d. Modem

49. personal computer can be connected together to from a _________
a. server
b. super computer
c. network
d. enterprise

50. A______________ is the term used when a search engine returns a web page that matches the search criteria.
a. blog
b. hit
c. link
d. view

Ans :
1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-d, 5-b, 6-b, 7-a, 8-b, 9-c, 10-a, 11-a, 12-c, 13-a, 14-b, 15-d, 16-e, 17-e, 18-c, 19-e, 20-b, 21-b, 22-b, 23-b, 24-d, 25-c, 26-a, 27-a, 28-d, 29-c, 30-b, 31-b, 32-b, 33-d, 34-a, 35-e, 36-d, 37-e, 38-c, 39-b, 40-c, 41-e, 42-c, 43-e, 44-e, 45-c, 46-a, 47-a, 48-d, 49-c, 50-e.