India has recently proposed to ratify the MARPOL convention. MARPOL is associated with
(1) The prevention of Air Pollution from Aeroplane.
(2) The prevention of Air Pollution from heavy industries.
(3) The prevention of Air Pollution from Ships.
(4) The prevention of Air Pollution from Power Plants.
Ans : (3)
Who of the following is regarded as "Father of Employment Guarantee Scheme" and a postage stamp was released on his name by the President of India recently?
(1) KM Madhew
(2) Kasu Brahmanand Page
(3) Daulat Singh Kothari
(4) Vitthal Sakharam Page
Ans : (4)
Recently in news Teesta water deal between
(A) India and Bangaladesh
(B) India and Nepal
(C) India and Pakistan
(D) India and China
Ans : (A)
Consider the following statemements about Lok Pal Bill:
(A) The submit their reports which are placed in both Houses of parliament.
(B) The government is not bound to accept these reports, but generally it does accept some of the suggestions.
(C) The Lokpal Bill has been refferee to the parliamenary standing committee for personel public grievances, law and justice.
(D) Headed by Rajya Sabha Congress MP Abishek Singhvi, it has three months to give report.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) Only (a) and (b)
(2) Only (b) and (c)
(3) Only (c) and (d)
(4) All of the above
Ans :(4)
Consider the following statements about parliamentry standing committees:
(A) Commonly known as mini-parliament, these committees include numbers from all political parties and even independent MPs.
(B) There are 31 members in each committee - 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.
(C) The committees monitor the functioning of central ministries and departmets.
Which of the above statements are true?
(1) Only (A)
(2) Only (B)
(3) Only (C)
(4) All of the above.
Ans : (4).
1. Which National River has decided to declare by Govt of India?
a) Brahmaputra
b) Yamuna
c) Ganga
d) Kaveri
e) None of these
2. Who amongst the folIowing economists gave the concept of “economies of scale”, which says “many goods and services can be produced more cheaply in long series”?
a) Edward C Prescott
b) Amartya Sen
c) Gary S Becker
d) Edmund S Phelps
e) Paul Krugman
3. Very often we read in newspapers/magazines about “Sovereign Wealth Funds”. Which of the following is/ are the correct description of the same?
(A) These are the funds or the reserves of a government or central bank of a country which are invested further to earn profitable returns.
(B) These are the funds which were accumulated by some people over the years but were not put in active circulation as they retain them as Black Money for several years.
(C) The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailout packages are known as sovereign funds.
a) Both B & Conly
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) Only A
e) None of these
4. Very often we read about Special economic Zones (SEZs) in newspapers. What is the purpose of promoting SEZs in India?
(A) They are established to promote exports.
(B) They are established to attract investments from foreign countries.
(C) They are established to help the poorest of the poor in India as the activities of these zones are reserved only forthe poors and those living below poverty line.
a) Only A
b) Only B
c) Only C
d) Both A & B only
e) None of these
5. The ratio of the Cash Reserves that the banks are required to keep with the RBI is known as
a) Liquidity Ratio
b) SLR
c) CRR
d) Net Demand & Time Liability
e) None of these
Answers –
1 - (c) , 2 - (e), 3 - (d), 4 - (d), 5 - (c)
1. The first Indian bank to open a branch outside India in London in 1946?
a) SBI
b) PNB
c) BOB
d) Canara Bank
e) BOI
2. Coins are minted at?
a) Mumbai
b) Hyderabad
c) Noida
d) Kolkatta
e) All of these
3. Which of the following is not a function of commercial bank?
a) Providing project finance
b) Selling mutual funds
c) Deciding policy rates like CRR, Repo rates/SLR etc.
d) Settlement of payments on behalf of the customers
e) Providing services such as locker facilities, remittances etc...
4. The New Capital Adequacy Frame work prescribed for the banks is commonly known as?
a) KYC norms
b) Credit Policy
c) Basel accord
d) Fiscal Policy
e) None of these
5. Expand the term FRBM?
a) Financial Responsibility and Business management
b) Fiscal Responsibility and Business management
c) Financial Responsibility and Budget Management
d) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
e) Formal Responsibility and Business Management
6. What is an Indian Depository Receipt?
a) A deposit account with a Public Sector Bank
b) A depository account with any of depositories
c) An instrument in the form of depository receipt created by an Indian depository against underlying equity shares of the issuing company
d) An instrument in the form of deposit receipt issued by Indian depositories
e) None of these
7. Land Development Banks form a part of the?
a) Commercial Banks
b) Industrial Development Bank of India
c) Food Corporation of India
d) Co-operative Credit Structure
e) None of these
8. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added Service offered by bank?
a) Special Accounts for poor sections of society
b) Accident Insurance Cover
c) Instant credit of outstations cheques
d) Free cheque books
e) All of these
9. The minimum number of women required for formation of women groups under Development of women and children in Rural Areas Programme is?
a) 20
b) 15
c) 10
d) 05
e) None of these
10. What is the full form of 'FINO', a term we see frequently in financial newspapers?
a) Financial Investment Network and Operations
b) Farmer's Investment in National Organization
c) Farmers Inclusion News and Operations
d) Financial Inclusion Network and Operations
e) None of these
11. With an aim to provide better services to the debit card holders, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has directed all commercial and public sector banks to introduce new Automated Teller Machines (ATM) that can deliver lower denomination notes such as?
a) Rs 10
b) 20
c) 50.
d) None of the above
e) All the above
12. Which of the following banks is limited to the needs of agriculture and rural finance?
a) RBI
b) SBI
c) IFC
d) NABARD
e) Axis Bank
13. Open-market operations of Reserve Bank of India refer to?
a) Trading in securities
b) Auctioning
c) Transaction in gold
d) All of these
e) None of these
14. Which of the following has introduced a new tool named Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence System for speedy analysis of data and identification of violations?
a) IRDA
b) SBI
c) RBI
d) TRAI
e) None of these
15. The Reserve Bank hiked the limit for foreign investment in Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) from the earlier cap of 49 percent to?
a) 74 %
b) 47 %
c) 57 %
d) 72 %
e) None of the above
Answers..
1) e
2) e
3) c
4) c
5) d
6) c
7) d
8) d
9) c
10) a
11) e
12) d
13) a
14) b
15) a
Rates - Part I
1. What are Wharfage charges? What is the free time allowed on Goods unloaded and rates for levy of Wharfage charges?
2. Define demurrage charges? What are the guidelines for dealing of waiver/refund of demurrage and Wharfage charges?
3. What are the general rules for booking of luggage?
4. Write short notes on following:
a) Free allowance of luggage on tickets of different classes and passes issued to Railway servants.
b) What is marginal allowance.
5 How do you deal the cases of unbooked and partially booked luggage detected on trains?
6 What is meant by Rationalization of Parcel Traffic? How does it help Railways in minimizing claims?
7 Write in detail about Season tickets? Market Vendor Season ticket, Low Value Season ticket, Free Season Tickets issued to students.
8 What are the rules for booking of a special train?
9 What is meant by Station Outstanding? What are the steps taken to minimize outstanding?
10 Write short Notes on the following
a) Routing of goods traffic b) Rating of goods traffic c) Route Rationalization Scheme.
11 What are the rules governing the opening of a halt station?
12 Write short notes on any three of the following:
a) Wagon Demand Registration Fee. b) Exemption from payment of WDRF.
c) Refund of WDRF. d) Premier Registration Scheme.
13 What are the general rules for issue of Railway concessions to passengers? Write about any two concessions?
14 What are the rules governing grant of station to station rate?
15. What is a siding? Briefly explain the procedure for opening of a siding?
16. What is a siding agreement? What are the various charges collected at Siding?
17. Write short notes on :
a) Out Agency b) City Booking Office c) RCT d) RRT e) Claims Website
f) MRs 11 point programme g) Single File System h) Method to watch Boards and MRs references
18. Write about weighment and reweighment of Goods and collection of punitive charges in case of overloading?
19. What are the incentives and Awards Scheme available on S.C.Railway for implementation of Hindi?
20. What are the constitutional provision regarding use of Official Language Policy?
Rates - PART II
1. RCF stands for _________________________.
2. FOIS stands for ___________________________________.
3. IVRS stands for ____________________________________.
4. POET stands for ____________________________________
5. COIS stands for _____________________________________.
6. CONCERT stands for __________________________________.
7. RDSO stands for ______________________________________.
8. CRIS stands for ______________________________________.
9. IRCTC stands for _______________________________________.
10. RITES stand for ____________________________________.
11. IRCON stands for ____________________________________.
12. IRFC stands for ______________________________________.
13. NTES stands for _____________________________________.
14. Commercial Manual Vol.I deals with___________.
15. Commercial Manual Vol. II deals with _____________________.
16. Goods Tariff Part I Vol I contains rules regarding _____________ goods.
17. Goods Tariff Part I Vol II contains rules regarding _____________ of goods.
18. Goods Tariff Part II contains rules regarding __________ of goods.
19. Coaching Tariff part I contain rules regarding ____________.
20. Coaching Tariff part II contains rules regarding ____________.
21. Coaching Tariff part III contains rules regarding ____________.
22. TRC stands for ____________________________________
23. SORC stands for __________________________________________
24. Bans are imposed by _________________________.
25. Restrictions are imposed by _____________________.
26. Wagon demand cannot be accepted when ____________ are in force.
27. Forwarding note should be preserved for a minimum period of _______.
28. Preferential traffic order is governed by Section ___ of the railway act.
29. Excepting on ___________ days allotment of wagons should be done as per priority.
30. PT Order is valid a period of ______________________.
31. PTO is published by _______________________.
32. Allotment of wagons as per oldest date of registration is done on ______.
33. The number of priorities in PT Order is _______________.
34. For dispose unconnected or undelivered goods y public auction instructions from _______________ is required.
35. In case of said to contain RR, excess packages are delivered on _____________ and _______________________.
36. WT is certified by ____________________.
37. BCX standard rake consists ____________ wagons
38. Change of commodity is permitted by the DCM if the commodity is _____.
39. In case of misdeclaration, the minimum penalty per quintal is _________.
40. If PCEV charges are not paid Railways liability per sheep/goat is ______.
41. L condition means _________________________________________.
42. In general classifications letter d indicates ________________________.
43. In general classification letter small p indicates ___________________.
44. M & DG stands for ___________________________________
45. PDC stands for ______________________________________
46. SWA stands for _____________________________________
47. SLO stands for ___________________________________________
48. VDS stands for _____________________________________________
49. JSR stands for __________________________________________
50. MPA stands for ________________________________________
51. Delivery short of destination is called _______________________.
52. Diversion fee per wagon is Rs. ____________________.
53. When consignments are diverted freight outstanding can be cleared through _______________________.
54. Rebooking of perishables is ___________________.
55. When consignments are rebooked freight outstanding can be cleared through ______________.
56. RR is issued at the door step of consignor in _______________ services.
57. Specially reduced rates is applicable in _______ to ________ rate.
58. Demurrage charge is levied on per___________________basis.
59. Normal Goods shed working hours are from _______ to ________.
60. Demurrage charge for first 24 hours per 8 wheeler wagon per hour is Rs. ______
61. Demurrages charge for second 24 hours per 8 wheeler wagon per hour is Rs. ________.
62. Demurrage charge for subsequent hours after second 24 hours per 8 wheeler BG wagon per hour is Rs. _____.
63. Wharfage charge is collected per day per ________ for goods traffic.
64. Wharfage charge on parcels is collected per day per a unit of ______ kgs.
65. Concession granted to Orthopedically handicapped person with escort in AC2 tier is ________ percent
66. Concession granted to Orthopedically handicapped person with escort in Sleeper class is ________ percent.
67. Concession given to students on Season ticket is ________ percent.
68. Free season tickets are issued to girls students studying upto _____ class.
69. Free season tickets are issued to boys students studying upto ____ class.
70. The cost of low value season ticket issued to labourers of unorganized sector is Rs. ___.
71. Low value season tickets are issued to labourers of unorganized sector whose earning is upto Rs. _____ per month.
72. The highest class rate given in rate list for goods traffic is _______.
73. The lowest class rate given in rate list for goods traffic is _______.
74. EOL is permissible for siding notified for charging on ___________
75. The class rate applicable for wagon load traffic is ____________.
Rates - PART III
Multiple choice Questions:
1 Head of pubic relations department t Zonal level is ( )
a) CPRO (b) CCM (c) COM (d) Sr.DCM
2 Functions of the Commercial Department are
( ) (a) Sale of transport (b) Development of traffic (c) Maintaining public relations (d) all.
3 Head of public complaints at Zonal railway is
( ) (a) Sr.DOM (b) AGM (c) DRM (d) COM
4 Head of Public complaints at Divisional level is
( ) (a) Sr.DCM (b) ADRM (c) Sr.DOM (d) DRM
5 Free allowance of luggage for I & II class season ticket is
( ) (a) 15kgs & 10Kgs (b)10 Kgs & 5 Kgs (c) 50 Kgs & 35 Kgs. (d) None of these.
6 Low value season tickets are issued to labourers of unorganized sector, whose income is less than.
( ) (a) Rs. 400/- p.m. (b) Rs. 500/- p.m. (c) Rs. 1,000/- p.m. (d) None
7 Quarterly season ticket fare is _____ times of monthly season ticket fare
( ) (a) 2 times (b) 2.5 times (c) 2.7 times (d) 3 times
8 Identity card issued along with season ticket is valid for
( ) (a) One year (b) Two years (c) Five years (d) Seven years
9 Low value season tickets are issued for a maximum distance of
( ) (a) 80 kms (b) 100 kms (c) 150 kms (d) 125 kms
10 Market vendor season ticket fare is___ times of normal season ticket fare.
( ) (a) 1.25 (b) 1.5 (c) 1.75 (d) 2
11 Application for special coach should be made through SM to CPTM at least ___ days in advance
( ) (a) 30 days (b) 60 days (c) 180 days (d) none of these
12 Registration cum security deposit per coach is
( ) a) Rs 1,000/- (b)Rs. 10,000/- (c) Rs.15,000/- (d) None
13 For reserving a special coach ___ percent service charge is levied.
( ) (a) 12% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 25%
14 Names to the extent of ____ may be permitted to be changed upto the departure of the train, in case of special train.
( ) (a) 10% (b) 5% (c) 20% (d) None
15 Minimum distance for charge for a special train/carriage is
( ) (a) 200Kms. (b) 300kms. (c) 500 kms. (d) No limit
16 An application for booking of a special train should be given to CPTM at least ______ days in advance.
( ) (a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 180 (d) No time limit
17 An application for booking of a special train should be given to CPTM not earlier than ______ days in advance.
( ) (a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 180 (d) No time limit
18 In case of a special train haulage charges are collected for a minimum distance of
( ) (a)200Kms. (b) 300kms. (c)500 kms. (d) No limit
19 Concession is not admissible in respect of
( ) (a) Super fast surcharge (b) Reservation charge (c) Safety
surcharge (d) All these
20 Time limit for exchange of student concession certificate for outward journey is
( ) (a)14 days (b)28 days (c) 1 month (d) none
21 The element of concession allowed to Sr. Citizens in all classers is
( ) (a) 25% (b) 30% (c) 50% (d) 70%
22 In case of death/injury to a passenger due to accident, the kith and kin of passenger will be given refund of
( ) (a) Fare deducting clerkage (b) Fare for untravelled portion (c) Full Fare (d) None of these
23 Duplicate ticket can be issued for the purpose of undertaking journey when ticket is
( ) (a) Lost (b) Misplaced (c) Torn (d) All these
24 Parcel way bill is prepared in _____ foils.
( ) (a) 3 foils (b) 4 foils (c) 5 foils (d) 2 foils
25 Penalty for misdeclaration of parcels is dealt under section ___ of Railway Act, 1989.
( ) (a) 66 (b) 63 (c) 167 (d) 163
26 Parcels booked by express trains are charges
( ) (a) P (b) S (c) R (d) None
27 The highest scale in the parcel is
( ) (a) P (b) S (c) R (d) None
28 Transfer of certain tickets is prohibited as per section __ of Railway Act,1989.
( ) (a)49 (b) 55 (c) 53 (d) 142
29 Luggage should be presented for booking at least ____ minutes before scheduled departure of the train.
( ) (a) 60 (b) 30 (c) 45 (d) No time limit
30 Minimum luggage charge is
( ) (a) Rs. 10/- (b) Rs. 50/- (c) Rs. 20/- (d) Rs. 30/-
31 WDRF should be claimed within ____ days from the date of registration,
( ) (a) One year (b) Two years (c) Three years (d) Four years
32 The initial document that determines the Railway Liability for loss etc. Of goods is
( ) (a) F. Note (b) R.R (c) Partial Delivery Certificate (d) None
33 Forwarding note should be preserved for a minimum period of ___ years
( ) (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d)
34 Monetary limit of CCM to waive demurrage charge is
( ) (a) Rs. 25,000/- (b) Rs. 50,000/- c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Full powers
35 Monetary limit of GM to waive demurrage charge is
( ) (a) Rs. 25,000/- (b) Rs. 50,000/- c) Rs. 1 lakh (d) Full powers
36 Pre-ponement of journey on reserved ticket is permitted
( ) (a) 6 hours before departure of train (b) 24 hours before departure (c) 3 days in advance (d) None of these
37 Postponement of journey on reserved ticket is permitted
( ) (a) 6 hours before departure of train (b) 24 hours before departure (c) 3 days in advance (d) None of these
38 Tatkal charge collected on sleeper class ticket during peak period
( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/-(c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-
39 Tatkal charge collected on AC Chair Car ticket during peak period
( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-
40 Tatkal charge collected on AC3Tier class ticket during peak period
( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-
41 Tatkal charge collected on AC2Tier class ticket during peak period
( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-
42 Tatkal charge collected on sleeper class ticket during non-peak period
( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300
43 Tatkal charge collected on AC Chair Car ticket during non-peak period
( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-
44 Tatkal charge collected on AC3Tier ticket during non-peak period
( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-
45 Tatkal charge collected on AC2Tier ticket during non-peak period
( ) (a) Rs.75/- (b) Rs.150/- (c) Rs.200/- (d) Rs.300/-
46. The amount of rebate for each net credit hour earned under EOL scheme is
( ) (a) Rs.100/- (b) Rs. 15/- (c) Rs. 60/- (d) Rs.200/-
47. First application for waiver of demurrage should be submitted to the Station master within ___ days from the date of accrual.
(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) None
48 An appeal for waiver of demurrage charges against the order of lower authority should be preferred within ____ days from the date of communication of order.
(a) 10 (b) 30 days (c) 15 days (d) 60 days.
49 An indent for a standard rake of BOXN wagons should be for ____ wagons.
(a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 56 (d) 58
50 An indent for a standard rake of BCN wagon should be for ______ wagons.
a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 56 (d) 58
Analogy means Similarity or resemblance or some kind of relationship between two given things. Analogy test, therefore intends to evaluate one’s ability to comprehend the relationship that exist s between two objects, things or figures. There are infinite possibilities in establishing relation between two objects. Here, some important relationships are as follows:
1. Cause and Effect Relationship
Example: Education: Development
a) Man: speech
b) Nutrition: health
c) Game: Play
d) Child: Growth
The relationship between development and education is of cause and effect. Education is a cause for development. Among the four choices, only (b) nutrition is a cause for health.
Hence b is the answer
2. Part and Whole Relationship
Example: House: Room
a) Struggle: fight
b) Transport: car
c) School: college
d) Boy: girl
Room is a part of house. Similarly car is a part of transport system.
Hence b is the answer
3. Part: Part relationship
Example: Gill: Fin
a) Salad: rice
b) Sea: fish
c) Kill: bomb
d) Question: team
Just as gill and fin are two different parts of a fish so salad and rice are parts of food.
Hence a is the answer
4. Purpose relationship
Example: Glove: Ball
a) Summer: winter
b) Game: study
c) Stadium: seats
d) Hook: fish
Just as a Glove helps catch a ball, hooks helps to catch a fish
Hence d is the answer
5. Action to object relationship
Example: Break: Piece
a) Writer: pen
b) Bread: bake
c) Kick: football
d) Muddy: Unclear
Just as break is an action that makes pieced, so kick is an action that makes the football move.
Hence c is the answer
6. Study and topic relationship
Example: Linguistics: Language
a) Gardener: harrow
b) Hen: chicken
c) Scale: length
d) Anthropology: man
Just linguistics is the science of language, so anthropology is the study of man’s life
Hence d is the answer
7. Word and antonym relationship
Example: Confidence: diffidence
a) Dastard: coward
b) Field: farm
c) House: garbage
d) Baffle: clarify
Just as diffidence is the opposite of confidence, so clarify is the opposite of baffle.
Hence d is the answer
8. Degree Relationship
Example: Warm: Hot
a) Tailor: textile
b) Sun: planet
c) Horrible: heinous
d) Fight: war
Just as hot is the greater degree of warm, so war is the greater degree of fight.
9. Creature and offspring relationship
Example: Horse: Colt
a) Goat: bleat
b) Dawn: twilight
c) Dog: Puppy
d) Actor: stage
Just a colt is a young one of horse so puppy is the young one of dog.
Hence c is the answer
10. Word and Synonym Relationship
Example: Abate: Lessen
a) Sweet: bitter
b) Ice: solid
c) Dog: bitch
d) Secret: clandestine
Just as abate and lessen have similar meanings, so secret or clandestine have similar meanings.
Father is aged three times more than his son Sunil. After 8 years, he would be two and a half times of Sunil's age. After further 8 years, how many times would he be of Sunil's age?
A. 4 times
B. 4 times
C. 2 times
D. 3 times
Answer : Option C
Ten years ago, P was half of Q's age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3:4, what will be the total of their present ages?
A. 45
B. 40
C. 35
D. 30
Answer : Option C
Explanation :
Let the present age of P and Q be 3x and 4x respectively.
Ten years ago, P was half of Q's age
=> (3x – 10) = 1
2
(4x – 10)
=> 6x – 20 = 4x – 10
=> 2x = 10
=> x = 5
total of their present ages = 3x + 4x = 7x = 7 × 5 = 35
X and Y invest Rs.21000 and Rs.17500 respectively in a business. At the end of the year, they make a profit of Rs.26400. What is the share of X in the profit?
A. Rs.14400
B. Rs.26400
C. Rs.12000
D. Rs.12500
Answer : Option A
Explanation :
Ratio of the investment = 21000 : 17500 = 210 : 175 = 42 : 35 = 6 : 5
Share of X in the profit = 26400 * (6/11) = 2400 * 6 = 14400
IVFRT project is related to Immigration.
National integration council in India head prime minister.
Head quarter of Biodiversity International is in Rome.
The humanoid Robot 'Robonaut 2' was developed by united States.
SLINEX -II exercise which was recently conduted between India and Srilanka was a naval exercise.
